5 thoughts on “A Question About Jesus”

  1. Chaps here, JaC…A couple different ways we can think about this: In the language of Jesus’ time, “Son of Man” meant ‘human being/myself’. “One like us in all things but sin.” says Scripture. Fully human. That approach concentrates on one word in the phrase (Man); another focuses on the other word (Son). If we remember that the Father calls Jesus his Son – at the Baptism by John, at the Transfiguration on Mt. Tabor – in the Gospels, we have another clue. Jesus is the Son of God; He is ‘God with a human face’, some writers have said. So, it’s a way for Jesus to tell us that he is fully human and fully divine. Hope this helps!

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  2. I think it’s because in the Bible, angels are referred to as “the sons of God”. So this was to stress His human provenance.

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